From what I can tell, most Classical authors use Lakedaimon where most modern writers use Sparta; modern translators often convert the former to the latter when rendering ancient texts, i.e.
ὦ ξεῖν', ἀγγέλλειν Λακεδαιμονίοις ὅτι τῇδε κείμεθα τοῖς κείνων ῥήμασι πειθόμενοι.
Go, tell the Spartans, stranger passing by/That here, obedient to their laws, we lie.
What gives? Did everyone just decide to switch to the easier spelling at some point?
Related: what happened to the similar but different term Lakonia?