Why is 11th-8th century BC considered dark ages for the Greeks?

by cupid91

I undersrand that lack or artifacts and any other significant sources of knowledge for that era leads to that general conclusion, that the fall of Mycenae was also a decline of the Greeks that lasted centuries.

Isnt though very curious that "suddenly" the Greeks come back with amazing achievements at 8th century BC? How come declined and less significant, unorganized people manage to create wave after wave of colonies, create amazing literature in a very elaborate tongue (Homer), have their art, science and overall power flourish and also start to brew philosophy, i say again, suddenly at the 8th century?

Isnt it reasonable to say that these centuries were not really a dark age rather than a transitional age where Greeks did not really decline?

deMohac

That period is bracketed by the sudden end of the Mycenean civilization, and the return of writing with the "invention" of the Greek alphabet. But this periodization, and calling that period "dark age", mainly shows our bias towards written sources. Throughout that period and beyond, the Greeks culture was essentially all oral, and if we ignore that oral component and only look at the written sources, we essentially don't see that period at all. The early examples of writing in the archaic period were all in verse, because poetry was an efficient way of preserving text and stories in the oral tradition. The Homeric epics were recited, sung to music, perhaps danced to, throughout the Greek world for decades or centuries, before they were put down in writing. There is no reason to believe that society did not function without/before the written word. Religious festivals where choruses performed poetry to music and dance, for example Alcman's Partheneion, existed both before and after the end of the "dark age". Elite men enjoyed meeting, drinking, and listening to poetry before and after the end of the "dark age". We have some written sources at the beginning of the archaic period, and they all point to a society where the written text was really secondary to the spoken word. In general, the Greek civilization during the "dark age" was probably as vibrant and rich of culture as the one of the following archaic period, but we just don't have extant written records of that period (or of other civilizations in other parts of the world during the bronze age).

For a fascinating overview of ancient Greece as an oral society, I highly recommend Rosalind Thomas, Literacy and Orality in Ancient Greece. Not only it helps you see specifically the Greek civilization of the archaic period beyond the limited written sources, it also helps understand oral civilizations in general, and essentially all pre-modern civilizations were primarily oral.