In the new testament people drink wine, but they eat unleavened bread, why wouldn't they use yeast to make the bread rise when they had already used it for making wine?

by emplah
psstein

I'd have to ask what passage you're thinking of. If you mean the Eucharistic formula quoted at Luke 22:15-20 and elsewhere, that's supposed to be the Passover meal, which, due to commandments in the OT, is supposed to include unleavened bread.

Also, ask r/AcademicBiblical.

OpthalmicObsessions

Neglecting for a moment the cultural context and religious rules to follow with regards to food, people in biblical times didn't "use yeast" - they didn't even know it existed. Yeast was discovered to be the reason for fermentation in the 1850s. Before that wine was either produced by spontaneous fermentation - yeast accidentally enters the grape juice - or by spiking it with already fermenting wine. There was no connection made between the alcohol production in wine and gas production in bread.

AshkenazeeYankee

Is there a particular passage you have in mind?