You might want to take a look at this answer from /u/bristoneman
There are a couple of distinctions I'd like to make in reference to your question. You mention the tribes that "invaded" Britain in the 500s, but recent scholarship has actually shown there to be little evidence of any sort of invasion by the Anglo-Saxons in the 6^th century. A number of Anglo-Saxon settlement communities, the best studied of these being Mucking on the Thames estuary, show significant degrees of integration with the indigenous Briton communities^1. Indeed, of the several hundred cemetery inhumations from the site, few show any sign of bone or other bodily trauma, and those that do may be a result of hunting accidents or any number of other non-violent causes. Another important mark of integration between the Briton and Saxon communities is found in the evolution of timber-structured buildings common throughout the Germanic world. In Mucking, as many as 53 of these timber-structures have been identified, none of which match the style of their Germanic and Danish counterparts^2. It may be implied that the Anglo-Saxon community at Mucking adapted the style of their buildings to accommodate local building techniques.
I cannot speak to the Danes or much of Northern Britain, but its fair to say that the identities, Dane and Anglo-Saxon, were undergoing a significant transformation during the Late Antique and Early Mediaeval periods in Britain. In this regard, a sharp difference between the two seems unlikely, especially among the communities which settled permanently in Britain. By the 7^th and 8^th centuries, these integrated communities may have constructed new identities for themselves to provide a casus belli for expansion. These communities united into kingdoms and factions, whose best interest was in creating as many distinctions from other groups as possible. In this way, the identities between the Anglo-Saxons, Danes, and indeed any number of other subdivisions, may have been fictitious and exaggerated to create in and out-groups. To answer your question, I would say 'no', there probably would not have been much of a difference, and the scant archaeological evidence available seems to indicate this^3.
As an additional question. In the game Mount&Blade: Viking Conquest, one of the characters remarks that it is bitterly ironic that these Angles and Saxons and Jutes are now fighting their own distant cousins to maintain their control of England(the game starts in 836, iirc) did anyone at the time comment on this supposed irony?
Where there many vikings from Jutland? As far as I know it is not a part of Denmark normally associated with vikings.