Allowing women to take the throne?

by LizzyBear96

Why is it that Queen Elizabeth I and Queen Mary in their time were able to take the throne, but after King George III, they skipped his daughters and only had his sons take the throne until Queen Victoria began her reign?

RTarcher

Queen Elizabeth and Queen Mary were the only remaining children of Henry VIII when they took the throne. Their younger half-brother Edward VI inherited the throne first in 1547 on the death of Henry VIII. Edward died six years later, and after a brief scuffle with Lady Jane Grey, the very popular Mary claimed the throne in July. Edward had tried to disinherit Mary on the grounds of her illegitimacy (and her Catholicism). However, Mary's popularity among elite and commoner alike, along with the provisions in Henry VIII's will that she was to inherit if Edward died without issue (ie children), made her claim supersede the attempt to give the crown to Lady Jane. Following Mary's childless death, Elizabeth was the only remaining child of Henry VIII, and was (by the provisions in Henry's will) the next in line. The only other claimant in 1558 to the throne was her cousin Mary, Queen of Scotland (Mary was the granddaughter of Margaret Tudor, Henry VIII's sister). The idea of a Scottish woman married to a French King inheriting the throne of England was repugnant to almost everyone in England, and thus Elizabeth was kept as the proper heir.