Today I read that the council of the city of Rome had approved a motion to overturn the decree by which Augustus banished Ovid to Constanta.
Disregarding this particular case, so as not to fall foul of the 20 year rule, is there any genuine legal continuity between the early Roman imperial period and local government in modern day Italy? Or any other part of what was once the Roman empire, for that matter?
I have no knowledge of the Italian legal system, but here in the UK there are certainly pieces of legislation that have lasted for several centuries without being repealed or superceded. Are there any such examples in Rome? Does the question even make sense in the Roman or Italian context?
The legal continuity of the Roman Empire ended in 1453, with the fall of Constantinople or- albeit thats more arguable- with the dissolution of HRE in 1804.
Roman municipality before 1870 could made a hard-to-prove-or-disprove claim being continuation of Roman Senate, but after 1870 municipality of Rome is institution of the Kingdom of Italy and since 1946- Republic of Italy and legality of the body derives from the constitution of Italy.
Or any other part of what was once the Roman empire, for that matter?
Vatican in an sense could be considered rump state of Roman Empire, but that is closest thing there is.
So in short: no. It's just nice symbolic gesture, like peace with Carthage in 1985