Why was there no Axis insurgency after World War Two?

by diezeiten

Given the fanaticism of the European Fascists and the Japanese Racialists, one would've expected plans like Werwolf to gain more steam than they did. Why did the terrorists that the Allies feared never come to pass?

RiceandBeansandChees

Not to stifle new and interesting conversation, but here's an answer by u/pnzsaurkrautwerfer: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6stihc/why_was_there_no_robust_antiallies_resistance/dlgndl1/

In short: any resistance from post-war Germany and Japan was mitigated by these factors:

  • The allies have militarily crushed both Germany and Japan and devastated their infrastructure. This created a tremendous sense of fear and despair, especially when basic necessities were in many places lacking. Resistance is hard when the one person who is feeding you and trying to get you back on your feet was a former enemy.

  • Speaking of that fear and despair, much of the Axis population was simply happy that the war (a long and destructive one) was over. No more bombings or the rumble of distant artillery. The populace was tired and many would-be partisans were simply too exhausted to continue the fight.

  • Occupying powers were well prepared for resistance and in terms of military strength, any partisan activity would have been ultimately futile. There was no hope of freeing Germany or Japan from occupation.