Why did Hitler/Nazi Germany violate the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact in 1941?

by evilpenguin22

Always been curious why Hitler violated the Molotov-Ribbentrop pact in 1941 so shortly after having to reinforce axis powers on southern front in Libya and so close to the Japanese bombing of Pearl Harbor.

I understand it was always a fragile agreement, but for such a well-run war machine it seems like an odd time to open a 3rd front.

evilpenguin22

so I saw a post here that disappeared, but I don’t see a deleted Mark…

Quick note: The comment about Germany’s military prowess is no way complimentary or condoning.

I’m very aware that both made shins had expansionist plans that would inevitably come to conflict and both parties were aware.

The curiosity really stems from the belief that Germany was aware of Japan’s plan drawing the United States (Not military superpower) into war and Then underestimating the Allied forces in Libya requiring reinforcements…

As to the Soviet Union there appears to be consensus most of the world underestimated their military advancements to the time. Their history, particularly fending off Napoleon should have been a red flag…

Germany had acted methodically through appeasement then war. Crashing into the Soviets while securing/eliminating resistance to the west After taking neighboring countriesit just seems like an uncharacteristic move…

-teamalliedpowers

Blaskowicz

In a nutshell - no, Germany was not aware of Pearl Harbor in advance. The attack took both Americans and Germans by surprise; while the Allies' consensus was that a Japanese attack was likely, it was not a sure deal (in both Washington and Tokyo) before November 1941.

German policy and strategic decisions were less methodical and more haphazard than the common perception we have for them. Quite a few times things ended up going better than the Germans expected: the Czechoslovakians folding with no military conflict with them or the Allies and the fall of France in six weeks, for example. On the other hand, some things went clearly worse than expected: the British resistance to Hitler after the war began (and especially after the fall of France) and, of course, underestimating the Soviet military capabilities.

There were many reasons to invade the Soviets early and swiftly: they are a growing, unavoidable future threat, the Western allies are licking their wounds, and we need to secure strategic resources if we are to wage a long war with the Allies. They knew a two-front war was pretty much inevitable, so they decided to start it on their terms, while one side was too weak to attack them and the other was reorganizing their military.