Britain is often said to have last been successfully invaded in 1066 AD following the Norman Conquests. However, considering that the Glorious Revolution of 1688 consisted of William III of the House of Orange invading England with an Armada, and successfully deposing a head of state, why isn't the Glorious Revolution considered the "last successful invasion of Britain"?
William was married to Mary Stuart, the daughter of James II who was intended to succeed him by that invasion. Succeed him as co-monarch along with William, but succeed him nonetheless. William was invading on behalf of the impending British queen as well as his own behalf as her husband, not his own independent takeover. Furthermore, his and Mary's joint heir was her sister Anne, who wasn't foreign. He wasn't claiming Britain for Orange, but for the British heirs of the deposed king.