How did the transition from slavery to serfdom work in the Early Middle Ages? Why did rich people in places such as England give up on owning slaves, when it was clearly benefitting them?

by sparrowhawk815
BRIStoneman

Slavery actually formed an important part of the early medieval English economy throughout the Anglo-Saxon period and post-Conquest, before tapering off in the twelfth century. Anglo-Saxon legal codes, especially those concerned with weregeld, reference slaves throughout, and Domesday Book, for example, often lists the number of slaves in a settlement.

The decline is in part due to changing social views on the acceptability of owning people (prominent authors such as William of Malmesbury condemn slavery as a 'wretched institution'), and partly because of the ever-expanding borders of Christendom. It's explicitly forbidden for a Christian to own another Christian as a slave, and as the Church expanded throughout the early medieval period, so the pool of territories from which slaves could be taken grew ever smaller.