In 1807, Britain outlawed the slave trade, and outlawed slavery altogether in 1833. Yet during that same period, they were busy conquering Nepal, India, Ghana, and Burma. What explains the contradiction between morally ending slavery and ruthlessly exploiting the rest of the world at the same time?

by TheTromboneGeek
satyaki_zippo

Without going into moral debates, the slavery abolition act of 1833 did not "extend to any of the Territories in the Possession of the East India Company, or to the Island of Ceylon, or to the Island of Saint Helena".

Essentially, Britain outlawed slaves on home turf while reaping profits from slave trade and slave labour overseas. So technically, slavery was not outlawed altogether.