Follow-Up:

Why did the Franks only give their name toe the French and not other countries in the area?

Did they? Are the Franken regions inside the modern day Federal State of Bavaria (Germany) connected to the Franks in any way?

Follow up question: Was there even a significant population of Franks in the Western Frankish Empire after the Treaty of Verdun? Because I highly doubt that, looking at the tribal territory of the Franks. Wasn't the majority of people in 9th century "France" actually romanized Celts?