So the High Middle Ages is known for being a period in which feudalism flourished in Europe. But was this the same, or at least similar, in all of Europe? Say, for example, were Venice or Novgorod as "feudal" as France or the Holy Roman Empire? What about the Papal States? Was there any country that didn't apply any degree of feudalism at all? And what kingdom or empire would you say was the biggest exponent of this economic system?
Hi there -- this is a fairly complicated question to answer, as medieval historiography is moving in the direction of arguing that "feudalism" didn't really exist, or at least has been misused as a concept. This section of our FAQ goes into some depth on the topic -- feel free to ask follow up questions here, though.