(I am genuinly curious from a historical standpoint and am facinated in all peoples and cultures) Genuinly Curious so in the united states their was a civil rights movement for African americans. However, there are WAAY more blacks in Hispanic Countries than the u.s . (Blacks in those countires were formerly slaves who picked sugar cane instead of cotton.) for example brazil is 50% black, Honduras, panama, dominican republic, Columbia, venezuela, cuba, ect have sizable black populations too. I also heard that the U.S was one of the first countries to give up slavery and Hispanic countries were the last countires. However there seems to be tons of racial tension in America like black lives matter the alt right and such. However in latin America I have never heard of it.
Why was their no civil war either if many of those countries economies depended on slave labor too?
Also I have known some Black-Hispanics who went to grammer school with me and during black history month in school the teacher asked them how life was like as a black person compared to a white person. The culturally Hispanic black kids would look very confused and say “were not black we are Hispanic” despite clearly having African facial features. The black teachers would become confused and try to convince the students that they were black.
Why do African descended Hispanics not identify as black?
Why is there this vast difference in black communities in latin America and the U.S.A?
Also, why are mixed marriages less taboo in latin America than in the united states historically since their is a wonderful blend and mixture of different cultures in those regions?
Why was their no 1 drop rule in latin america either?
Thanks I am genuinly curious from a historic standpoint.
I can only give a partial answer, unfortunately, and I implore anyone who can give a fuller answer to do so.
I think your question has a lot of assumptions built into it, namely that there was no Civil Rights Movement at all in Latin America when nothing could be further from the truth. I think what you meant to ask is "why was there not a racial justice movement by black people in Latin America," which is a slightly different question.
So: there was a "civil rights movement" in Latin America, backed by the development of "liberation theology" in the 60s and 70s, which placed a huge emphasis on combating poverty and social injustice of all kinds; the doctrine was strong critique of the various economic and social structures, such as an oppressive governments, economic inequality and exploitation, and racial injustice. The main difference is that the Latin American Civil Rights Movement (and particularly Brazil) took the form of combatting poverty and class structures rather than racial structures. Some of this theology would end up fueling the various socialist revolutions that took place throughout the 70s and 80s in the region.
As for why there was never a civil war over slavery in any of the Latin American countries, the answer is both simple and complex: because several of them (excluding Brazil, which was Portuguese) were Spanish colonies. Independence during the various Spanish-American independence wars in the early 1800s initiated the abolition of slavery in Spanish America; it was seen as part of the independence struggle to free the slaves. In areas where slavery was not a major source of labor (Mexico, Central America, Chile), emancipation occurred almost immediately after independence was achieved. In areas where slavery was a main labor source (Colombia, Venezuela, Peru, Argentina), emancipation was carried out in steps over the next three decades, usually first with the creation of free-womb laws (laws that guaranteed freedom for children born to slaves) and programs for compensated emancipation. Basically: Latin American independence movements coincided with the discussion on ending slavery that was occurring in Europe at the time, which largely led to both things happening concurrently or within a few decades of each other. Additionally, Spain voluntarily abolished slavery in 1817, no threat of war needed, because as a country they had started to find it politically distasteful.
The "one drop" rule never existed in Latin America because it was purely a construction of white Americans trying to maintain racial supremacy over black Americans in the Jim Crow era. This was specifically related to two things: southern states acting to impose racial segregation by law and restrict the liberties of black people, specifically passing laws to exclude them from politics and voting. The one drop rule is sort of a uniquely American thing that came about as a result of anti-miscegenation laws and the desperate attempts of the South to enforce racial segregation. This is also a (very) partial answer to your question concerning mixed marriages: the "mixing" of races was heavily legislated and banned until 1964 when the Supreme Court struck down the ban on interracial marriages (Loving v. Virginia). The "stigma" comes from the fact that interracial marriage was literally illegal in the United States a little over 50 years ago. There are plenty of people still alive today that grew up in a time where interracial marriage was illegal; thus the stigma continues even as we have made significant strides forward in that area.
The US was not one of the first countries to give up slavery; I cannot emphasize that fact enough. In fact, the United States was one of the last states in the developed world to give up slavery; this Reuters timeline can give you a little bit of perspective as to the chronology of when various countries started banning slavery and/or the slave trade. This Wikipedia timeline is far more extensive and comprehensive, but take it with a grain of salt. Denmark-Norway was the first nation in the modern age to outlaw slavery in the early 1790s, while the French completely banned it following the French Revolution in 1794 (though Napoleon would later briefly re-introduce it). Britain, France, Spain, Denmark-Norway, the Netherlands, Greece, Haiti, and most Latin American countries had completely abolished slavery by the 1850s; Brazil had actually criminalized the maritime slave trade as piracy by that point. You also had things like the Congress of Vienna in 1815 where all participating nations announced their opposition to slavery. The United States was woefully late to the "end slavery" party, all things considered.
Unfortunately, that's about all that I can answer at this time due to a general lack of knowledge about the rest of your questions. I will let someone far more knowledgeable than me take over for those questions.