Why didn’t the North repeal the 3/5th Compromise when the South started to get closer to secession? (USA)

by The_Paper_Cut

To my understanding, a decent deal of why the South seceded is because they didn’t have the same representation in the Government as the Northern states did. This allowed for unfair laws and tariffs to be places against Southerners. Wouldn’t it be win-win if the North just removed the 3/5 Compromise though? The South would get more representation, and the North would finally be able to declare slaves as actual people and not property. Am I missing something here, or did they just not think of this?

scarlet_sage

Pointing to previous answers is not intended to discourage discussion. Further questions, data, and debate are welcome.

The FAQ has a section, "The Civil War and Slavery", at https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/civilwar#wiki_causes

I think the best start is the top link, "Was the American Civil War about more than just slavery?" at https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3edss0/was_the_american_civil_war_about_more_than_just/cte2mj9 , a multi-part reply by /u/Georgy_K_Zhukov (The second link starts with a version of that reply but then goes into other topics.) This reply addresses that "understanding".