Benedict Anderson States that chiefest of the paradoxes that have perplexed many theorists is "the objective modernity of nations to the historians' eye vs. their subjective antiquity in the eyes of nationalists." In what sense are nations 'modern'?

by uisge-beatha

In the introduction to Anderson's most famous work he descriebes three paratoxes which have perplexed those who work in the area of nations and nationalism for a long time. The first he notes is "The objective modernity of nations to the historians' eye vs. their subjective antiquity in the eyes of nationalists."

Now, of course the Nation-State is a modern beast, but what is he refering to when he says the different entity, the just-nation, is modern in the eyes of historians and ancient in the eyes of nationalists?
The Declaration of Arbroath seems to make reference to a Scottish Nation distinct from the Gaelic race shared with Ireland, as is refered to in Bruce's letter, iirc, 5 years prior.
I am less well read in the history of Japan, but can we not see a Nation in japan long before the modernist "state" emerges? Similar in parts of china?

Any insights here would be useful, because whilst I am broadly persuaded by Anderson's argument, this has long confused me. :)

uisge-beatha

I've x-posted this to r/asksocialsciences as no one here seems to have been able to answer the couple of times i've posted it.