Why didn't white Europeans use Native Americans as slaves as much as they used black people in the 17 and 1800's?

by evidica

I'm reading the Trail of Tears and it seems like white Europeans/New Americans had a lot of power over Native Americans, especially in the first half of the 1800's. It's almost as if they chose to only use Native Americans that were being punished as slaves but continued to own substantially more black slaves. What made owning black slaves the better choice than enslaving entire Native American populations?

TheCastro