How come some people groups in Muslim empires (e.g. Pomaks, Albanians, Bosniaks) converted to Islam without adopting the language of their conquerors while other people groups (e.g. Maronites, Assyrians, Copts) have largely adopted the language of their conquers but have not converted to Islam?

by UshankaCzar

It seems that the the Christian peoples ruled by the Arab caliphates were encouraged to speak Arabic but not as much to convert to Islam. For the Christian peoples conquered by the Ottoman Empire, it seems to be the other way around, with them converting to Islam but not largely speaking Turkish. What can explain this discrepancy?

UshankaCzar

EDIT: As someone pointed out Assyrians predominately still speak a form of Aramaic. Nonetheless, the question still stands, especially in regards to other groups like Palestinian Christians who do, by and large, speak Arabic.