All European languages have noun genders - expect English. How did this happen? Was it an organic or an intentional change?

by sparky222b

We also see this difference with the second person plural - the distinction between you and “y’all” is largely informal and confined to the American South.

Edit: As pointed out below, “most European languages” or “all other Germanic languages” is a more correct statement; nonetheless the question stands.

PersikovsLizard

The premise is false (no gender in Finnish and Hungarian, the Dutch gender system like English is also simplified from the earlier Germanic system and not masculine-feminine) but this doesn't seem like a question for ask historians. Try /r/linguistics weekly question thread

Searocksandtrees