I would say about 0%.

The truth this is based on is that patronage networks (or corruption depending on your view point) existed throughout Spain in the Restoration Government (1870-1923). But this is also true of countries that industrialized more heavily like the US.

Spain did not industrialize as rapidly as some other countries like the US, Germany or Britain for a few reasons. First, Napoleon’s invasion, wars in the colonies and frequent civil wars were enormously costly and destructive. Second, it remained much more profitable and prestigious to invest in non-industrial sectors like grain, grapes, olives, beef and sugar (until Cuba was lost). Third, Spanish geography is not as amenable to industrialization. There is only some coal in the country and it’s of low quality. There is almost no access to oil. Spain had few colonial markets especially after it lost Cuba. And it had several European competitors for the goods it produced- especially Italy. The several mountains and deserts that split the country also made transportation difficult. It wasn’t until the end of the century that Barcelona and Madrid we’re connected by train.

Stanley Payne’s Spain: A Unique History and Edward Malefakis Agrarian Reform and Peasant Revolution are good starts if you are interested in Spain’s 19th century economy.