The anglosaxons had a wealth of writing going back to Bede, and the 'northumbrian golden age' (or whatever it's called). By the time of 1066, it was approx. 300 years later. Did latin lose influence in the england that was united (for the second and final time) by the mid 10th century? Or did it gain even more influence?
How did it have so much influence among the normans, who had only settled down approx 150 years earlier as former norse pagans?
I'm quite confused what you're asking here.. What do you mean by the latin language gaining influence over the Normans, and what does that have to do with Latin being known in Anglo/Saxon England?