Dear AskHistorians,

I read a theory of political change that goes like this: if things are stably bad and have always been pretty bad, people do not rise up and demand reform or revolution. (Because there's no contrast between the way things are now and the way they've always been.)

But if people experience a substantial welfare improvement, and then lose some of those gains - whether in the form of rights or income or whatever - then they will demand reform/revolution.

I can't remember where I read this. The author had examples from history to justify the theory. Could you help me find it? Thank you!