During Holodomor, why didn't the peasants eat the seeds they had been meant to plant

by Javrambimbam

I was listening to Paul Kennedy's interview with Anne Applebaum where she claimed that the famine ended with the harvest of 1933, proof that it was an artificial creation.

But they were planting grain in Ukraine, and it seemed like they would have been reliant on the USSR to ship them grain seed. What would stop the hungry peasantry from eating the seeds that were delivered right to their door (or even covertly grinding them into flour)?

And at a time when people were resorting to cannibalism, why were they not be eating germinating wheat sprouts?

So in essence my question is, if the famine only ended in the harvest, how were the Ukranian peasants made to wait so long?

scarlet_sage

While waiting for further answers, you might be interested in a previous reply that addressed seed grain: an answer by /u/rusoved at "Why isn't the Ukrainian Famine of 31-33 considered genocide? And do you think it should be, or not?"

This is not to discourage discussion. "... you are still welcome to ask your question if it has been asked before: you may get new answers from different people." Further questions, data, and debate are welcome.