Why did South-America not form a united state?

by Dandi64

I thought that the people living there a mainly descendent from spanish settlers(as well as slaves and indigenous people)so what were the reasons for not uniting in one state after gaining independence ?(off course Brasil is obvious) Thanks for your answers

scarlet_sage

While waiting for further answers, you might be interested in previous answers on the subject.

There's an FAQ section, "Post-Independence Fragmentation of Latin America" (in the app, it doesn't obey the "#" anchor, so find the section near the bottom). The basics are covered in the first two, "Why is there not one united nation across all of Latin America?" by /u/LegendaryTubaHero , and "Why did North America split into 3 countries and South America split into 15 though they were colonized similarly?" by /u/Yodatsracist . The other two articles are worthwhile as well, giving other details and discussion. (There's another about why Brazil did not split like Spanish America, but that's off topic for your question.)

This is not to discourage discussion; the rules expressly permit questions that have been asked before More questions, data, and debate are welcome.