Approximately 45% of African slaves went to the Caribbean, 45% to Brazil and 10% to the US. Was there a demand for African slaves in non-Caribbean Spanish American colonies? Why didn't colonies with a lack of indigenous population (now Argentine, Chile, Uruguay) import slaves?

by [deleted]

[deleted]

Xtoval

Slaves went everywhere but were concentrated in places where you could produce lucrative commodities, above all sugar. Argentina (except in NW) and Uruguay did not have the climate for sugar. Cattle ranches required much smaller labor forces than sugar or coffee plantations.