A recent NotTheOnion thread claimed that peasants had more vacation time than modern Americans. How accurate is that idea? Did they actually have many days that their feudal lord didn't require their labour, and could they realistically relax during that time or would they need to spend those days working hard for other life necessities?
More can be written about this, but you might like 'How accurate is this piece? "Before Capitalism, Medieval Peasants Got More Vacation Time Than You. Here’s Why."' by /u/Miles_Sine_Castrum , and the many many replies are meaty.
(If you have more free time, I can point out that /u/Searocksandtrees compiled a lot more links here and here , but a lot of them are discussions before current standards and are therefore have lots of detritus. I went through them cursorily but didn't notice any really striking replies -- but maybe I missed something.)
This is not to discourage discussion. More questions, data, and debate are welcome.