There are a couple of other slavery-related questions asked today:

'Why did slaveholders sign off on "all men are created equal"?'

'Was the logical inconsistency of "all men are created equal" being attested to by slave holders pointed out by American Loyalists and the British at the time of the Declaration of Independence or did that criticism develop later?'

They actually aren't quite the same question; I just mention them because people interested in one might be interested in the others and therefore might want to keep an eye on them.