Why is Alexander the Great's empire attributed to Greek dominance and culture if he and his father were from Macedonia?

by Usk_Jhank
PrimisClaidhaemh

Not to discourage any further new discussion anyone might have, but this question came up just a month ago here, where /u/yodatsracist and /u/Iphikrates tackled it:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/8p1tct/why_is_alexander_the_great_sometimes_considered/

Also... /u/Iphikrates has several older write-ups on Alexander, Greek vs Macedonian identity, etc, from an older question of "Was Alexander the Great Greek", that are relevant:

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4wsix2/was_alexander_the_great_greek/d69muq7/

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/619mii/was_alexander_the_great_greek/dfd1msw/

These should be good places to start...

Christo2555

The Ancient Macedonians spoke a form of Greek and were culturally Greek. That's why, you're confusing Ancient Macedonia with the modern nation of Macedonia. The inhabitants of the modern country identified as Bulgarians until recently and Alexander never set foot on to their land.