I'm not sure exactly what the question means -- maybe you mean, could Germany have been defeated anyway, even if the US had not contributed troops but had kept up the same level of supply?

And there's not a clear thing to search for in previous responses anyway. Does this discussion help you at all? In "In WW2, who had greater industrial capacity, the Americans or the Soviets?" and its continuation reply, /u/Georgy_K_Zhukov looks at production by each major belligerent, but mostly the USA and USSR, and the amount of US Lend-Lease aid to the USSR. Please see the final paragraph for a nice little summary.

Does that discussion help answer your question? Do you have more or different questions?

EDIT: in a later private message, "It did help but the question that bothered me was whether it was probable that the axis would have lost without American intervention".