/u/BeardedDragon & /u/demosthenes29 (and also /u/JosephRMcCarthy):
As I've discussed elsewhere on AH and is commented in this thread, 15% of accused witches were male. We absolutely can't ignore men as victims, something else I've talked about. However, the overwhelming percentage of accused witches (hereinafter simply 'witches', although witchcraft was not an actual thing) being female is directly connected to currents of misogyny in both scholarly writing and in daily practice in 15th-17th century Europe.
The natural philosophers and theologians argued that women were more susceptible to satanic deception and persuasion due to their biological nature according to humoral theory. Women's body were more "porous" or "open", were "leaky." They drew on their interpretation of Adam and Eve to argue for women's greater mental susceptibility to the devil as well. The stereotype of women as sex fiends played a larger and larger role with the sexualization of the idea of witchcraft and the witches' sabbath.
Plenty of scholars have done good work showing that academic writing like Nider's "Formicarius" and Kramer's "Malleus MalificArum" did influence on-the-ground practice, including filtering into the tropes that flood witchcraft confessions (usually under or after torture). But it wasn't just clerical influence. For example, William Bradford Smith's excellent study of confessionalization in Franconia looks at local witch trials in the conclusion. One of the patterns he found was that a group of women around a man would all be accused. Family members, godfamily, and so forth. In other words, the people that witchhunters thought they could target or wanted to target were primarily women.
Finally, there's one more mistake in this thread that I want to point out. Just because an answer or a historical discussion does not name misogyny explicitly does not mean it's not present. For example one of the things not discussed is that the Formicarius and the MM were written by men. Why did only men get to influence policy this way? Women were barred from legal positions; women were barred from the clergy; women were barred from universities. (Elena Piscopia, the first woman PhD, earned her doctorate in 1678 and only in philosophy, after they wouldn't let her contend for it in the faculty of theology).
I've written about medieval universities and university students several times, for example, here, here, and here. In none of these did I raise the point that all these students were male because women were explicitly and categorically barred from studying at medieval European universities. Yet that is a fact underlying every word.
I wrote an answer about why women were overwhelmingly accused of witchcraft here:
(I don't know how to do the fancy turn-a-word-into-a-link-thing)
There's always room for more discussion and more answers, but these answers by /u/sunagainstgold might be relevant to your interests: