High heels were primarily worn by men for the first 700 years after they were invented, changing to being primarily worn by women in the 17th century. What triggered this change? Was there a time when both genders commonly wore them?

I've actually got a past answer that deals with this question: How did heels became a purely feminine thing, after it was first used on shoes in the 16th century by noble or rich men? (For more on the Great Masculine Renunciation I mention in it, try here.) It's on the short side, though, so there is certainly room for someone else to write a fresh response.