These are three answers by u/sunagainstgold that I think answer this question in some depth:
Do we have any historical evidence for casual sexual relationships being a thing in Europe in the middle ages/ renaissance period?
(Medieval Sex) How did the idea originate in the Middle Ages that a female orgasm is required for procreation when society also believed in ONLY having vaginal sex?
How were people not constantly impregnated during the middle ages and renaissance with all that unprotected sex?