I have recently come across many arguments, mostly among socialists, that 1932 was simply an unfortunate accident, and that deaths from starvation were simply caused due to a great shortage of grain supply that was prioritized over urban areas as opposed rural areas.
In addition, they argue that collectivization is not to blame for the famine - according to their sources, notably Mark Touger's 'The 1932 Harvest and the Famine of 1933', the 1932 quanta was reduced from 22.4 million tons to 18.1 million tons, alleviating the difference by increasing the quota from sovkhozes, and that overall grain procurement was reduced 30%. And that furthermore, exports were halved in response.
How much truth or falsehood is there to these arguments?
Much has been and can be written, but you might like to see the previous discussion in the section of the FAQ titled "The Holodomor". The replies in the first discussion link to further discussion.
This is not to discourage discussion. More questions, data, and debate are welcome.