Hi all, sorry if this is a repost although I've searched and feel as if I should be okay.
Anyway, how accurate are the records that Nazi Germany could've had Nuclear Weapons had World War 2 been postponed for a few years. Is the argument that a lot of the German scientists taken to create such weapons for the allies mean that Germany were within touching distance of such weapons? Are there any specific events that point to either side being more feasible than the other? Sorry if this breaks Rule 4 by the way, I wasn't completely certain on what would happen and so I'm just praying it doesn't.
Thanks :)
More can be written, and has been written. The AskHistorians-flaired writer is restricteddata, as reflected in the FAQ section title, "The atomic bombs, aka questions /u/restricteddata has answered" (particularly notable because other people's answers are in there).
You might like this reply: "Were Werner Heisenberg's nuclear capabilities overestimated?". I like it because it addresses not just the Germans giving (lack of) priority on their nuclear program, discussed in many places much more briefly, but also the organizational factors that made it difficult for the Germans, and some links to other discussions.
This is not to discourage discussion. More questions, data and debate are welcome.