I really don’t know anything outside of the movies like the mummy, jungle book, Tarzan, etc... I’m not even sure it’s India but I’m just curious, did the British conquer Eastern Asia? Or was it a friendly presence?
This is an extremely broad question, so I will link some more specific answers such as:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1rklft/why_was_india_the_jewel_in_the_crown_of_the/
For a very brief overview, yes, Britain controlled India. They were not the only European country that had a presence in India (Portugese India, French India, Dutch India, and Danish India were of varying amounts of influence and power during various time periods). But Britain ended up controlling the whole subcontinent, and maintained control through both world wars, ending in 1947 with Indians such as as Gandhi engaging in peaceful protest for independence. AskHistorians has some good answers about Ghandi as well:
To answer your other question, no, it's not just India, other areas of South East Asia colonized by Britain include Burma, Malaysia, Papua New Guinea, Solomon Islands, Fiji, and several others. (For a relatively recent one, British controlled Hong Kong until 1997 when the 99 year lease that they made with the Quing Dinasty in 1898 ran out).
You mention the Mummy, yes, England controlled Egypt from 1882-1954. You also mention "jungle book, Tarzan," Yes, Britain also controlled multiple other countries in Africa such as Sudan, Kenya, Uganda, Nigeria, South Africa, modern day Nambia, modern day Botswana, modern day Ghana, Sierra Leone, modern day Tanzania, modern day Zimbabwe, modern day Zambia and others. There are some good ask historian answers about various of these, but I'll leave you with "Are the Mummy movies historically accurate":
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4ee2bm/are_the_mummy_movies_historically_accurate/