Why didn't Germanic languages displace or lend vocabulary to Romance languages during the fall of Rome?

by Kenshasa

Additionally, why did this happen in places like Iberia, Italy, and Gallia, but not in places like England and the Rhineland?

Alkibiades415

They did displace/lend vocabulary to Romance languages. Every single Romance language has a long list of words of Germanic origin. For instance, in French,

guerre "war" ( < Old French guerre < Frankish *werra < Germanic *werso, cf Old High German werra "strife, quarrel")

And it happened less in Iberia, Gallia, and Italia because those places were heavily Romanized and had a Latin (and often Greek) presence. Places like the Rhineland and England were not heavily Romanized, or their Roman presence/identity did not persist long after the end of antiquity, and so they are more heavily Germanic and less Romance than French, Spanish, Italian, Romanian, etc.