[European History] Given that feudalism was the dominant form of rule in medieval Europe, are there any records of peasants who advocated for something similar to communism or socialism?

by Milkshaketurtle79

So I wouldn't really consider myself a communist. But medieval europe seems like the perfect place for communism or socialism to take root.
I know that the church preached against things like greed and gluttony- traits generally associated with the rich. In addition, I've read that many lords demanded large portions of working people's resources and/or kept many natural resources to themselves- i.e. lots of grain, many places only allowed royalty to hunt in the region, etc.
So with all of this in mind, why didn't communism or socialism become a thing back then? I know there's the reasoning that they were too busy trying not to starve to death, and most peasants were illiterate, but it seems like something that would've eventually gained traction.
I should also note that I'm not saying communism/socialism is inherently good/bad. I'm just genuinely curious.

Dialecticus

Yes! The Peasant Revolt of 1381 is one such example, but John Arnold in his book What Is Medieval History mentions that revolts against serfdom and lordship were relatively common, as was the call for "common ownership of property:"

[1381] was far from the only occasion when such views were voiced: various rebellion across the middle ages demanded an end to unjust lordship (although not always necessarily its secession), the common ownership of property, and justice for all.

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