In high school history, we learned about how during the Moslem conquest of the 7th century, Christians who came under Arab rule were allowed to keep their religion as long as they “paid a tax”, as the Arab Caliphate was a tolerant and benevolent society. However, later on, I read a different story about the Moslem conquest where the Arabs forced conquered Christians to convert to Islam, and those who wouldn’t were brutally persecuted, giving the Arabs a bad image in Europe that justified the Crusades. Which story is the correct one? I’m leaning more towards the second story considering history class tends to gloss over a lot of things.
Well, from what I've read, the Fatimid Caliphate allowed Coptic Christians to occupy positions in government, along with Jews. Tolerance in general was practice to ensure peace and tranquility. They were even involved in trading with the Catholic nation of Makuria in Sudan. This general tolerance continued under Saladin and his Ayyubid Dynasty, though Coptics were watched much more closely due to the Crusades happening at the time. After Saladin's rise to power, the Makurians actually invaded Egypt, in support of their Fatimid allies. Coptics remained in government until the foundation of the Mameluke Sultanate, which, with the pressure of the Crusader invaders, and Mongol invasions, caused them to adopt severely discriminatory policies towards Coptics, and Jews by extension, until the Ottoman Empire stepped in and took over rulership.
Pollard;Rosenberg;Tignor, Elizabeth;Clifford;Robert (2011). Worlds together Worlds Apart. New York, New York: Norton. p. 313.
Kropacek 1997 p. 399, p. 401.
Teule 2013, p. 10.
In Spain and North Africa, meanwhile, the Almoravid Dynasty, was very tolerant towards Non-Muslims, Jews in particular. During Spainish conquests, Jews regularly chose to stay with their Islamic Rulers, rather then stay with Spainish rule. Likewise, Christian Mercenaries were commonly used, called Farfanes. The Almohads, however, were far less tolerant, and persecuted many. One official, named Maimonides, urged advised Jews with a simple ideal. "Muslims know very well that we do not mean what we say, and that what we say is only to escape the ruler’s punishment and to satisfy him with this simple confession".
Idris al-Ma'mun would walk back on many Almohad practices, and allow Jews to practice their faith openly, and even allowed a Christian church there as part of his alliance with Castile. After the collapse of the Almohad Caliphate, many of the remaining Taifas allowed Jews and others to practice their faith openly.
M.J. Viguera, "Almohads". In Encyclopedia of Jews in the Islamic World, Executive Editor Norman A. Stillman.
Which conquest did the Arabs do this exactly? Perhaps, given the name of their Caliphate/Dynasty, I can better pinpoint why they did such things so brutally.
While this pertains to Egypt in particular, /u/frogbrooks answer here addresses this to a degree: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5ytsid/were_the_early_muslims_colonial_occupiers/det1lzn?utm_source=reddit-android
Broadly speaking, forced conversion has been unusual in the history of Islam, as it violates Quranic tradition which stresses the importance of making the right choice (Sura 2.256 - There is no compulsion in religion), but there certainly are instances throughout Islam's vast history. However the early Arab caliphates are not among them. See e.g. Hoyland's "In God's Path" for a good introduction to the early Islamic conquests.