English works written or set in the 18th and 19th centuries often describe people as being “worth X pounds a year”. What do they mean?

by Zethniti

Many of these people are women. How did they get their income and/or estates?

Was marrying for wealth as much a priority for aristocrats as it can sometimes seem from these works?

Searocksandtrees

Hi, you'll find more discussion in this post, which includes links to a few more

In Jane Austen's "Pride and Prejudice", Mr. Bennet is said to have an income of perhaps £2000 yearly, which is said to be a "respectable income for a gentleman." If translated into currency today, how wealthy could Mr. Bennet be?

and

/u/fiftytwohertz in How did economics work in Jane Austin-era England? (Early 1800's) How realistic were these books?, with followup by /u/mikedash in In Pride and Prejudice, Mr. Darcy and Mr. Bingley are constantly called away “On Business”. Do we have any idea what this ‘Business’ might have involved?

ArmDoc

Normally, that phrase was used to mean that "at least X pounds per year" was their annual income. It could have been from trade, from inheritance, or more usually from the land. I can't comment specifically about the women or the "marrying for wealth", but that is what the phrase was used to mean.