Why did Classical Arabic stay somewhat intelligible for modern Arabic speakers while the Romance languages diverged from Latin? Why did Latin not influence the Romance languages to stay conservative like Classical Arabic influenced the Arabic varieties?

by DaDerpyDude
Krg60

Strictly AFAIK...

The Arabic of the Quran was and is a powerful standardizing influence on written Arabic in the Islamic world, the more so because it's not supposed to be translated; the spoken Arabic varieties, have diverged quite a bit from the standard, especially in North Africa. Whether Arabic is your mother tongue or not, you have to learn it to read it, and the Quran structures every aspect of Islamic life.

In the West, however, Latin was the language of the clergy, and understood only by the clergy, while the Mass was in Latin, not the vernacular. Latin was still the language of commerce, religion, and diplomacy, but the average citizen would have had little need of it, effectively disconnecting Latin from the vernacular.

mancake

This might be more appropriate for r/linguistics. I suggest posting there if you don’t get an answer here.