I was recently arguing with users on another subreddit about the Ukrainian famine. It seems like there is a Capitalist/fascist perspective that views the famine as a genocide (the Holodomor), and then there is the socialist/communist perspective that it was an administrative failure stemming from collectivization, not an intentional act.

I would have thought this was a much discussed topic, but one user who cited AskHistorians in their answer could only bring up 5 year old threads, so it seems high time for an answer that is up to the modern standards of this sub.

So my question is, which view is more supported by the available historical evidence?