In 23 june 1789 Louis XVI warned to the Estates-General: "None of your projects, none of your resolutions, can HAVE THE FORCE OF LAW/S without my special approval"
Did he meant to say "None of your projects, none of your resolutions, can BECOME LAW without my special approval"?
In short: If a decision does not have "the force of law" because lacks approval, does it mean it is NOT a law?
Evening mate,
This comes down to which translation you opt to read. Yours is decidedly less clear than others I have seen (who knows, it may be more accurate).
However, in the course I teach on this, I take the approach that this is Louis reaffirming that he has the last word on the writing of laws in France, and without his approval they will not be made legally binding. This fits the tone of the rest of the speech as well.
Louis later does concede that the Estates General would become permanent, and would have the power to impose and rescind taxes. This was too little too late though, the die had been cast!
Apologies for the lack of precise sourcing, but McPhee's 'Liberty or Death' discusses this in Chapter 4 (my digital copy lacks page numbers).