Pre-modern Japan is often described as "feudal", comparing it to medieval Europe. How accurate are these comparisons, politically. I'm aware that Feudalism was a bit different between European countries, and I'd like to hear about any if you want to answer. But for the purposes of the question lets narrow it down specifically to comparing the Japan of the Sengoku Jedi era and early Tokugawa Shogunate to France in the 14th-15th centuries, just before, during, and after the Hundred Years War.
I am unable to answer this because:
Hoping someone else can. I do have to mention no one's sure if or when Japan was "feudal", and I don't think any scholar cares anymore, since the trend is to not use the term altogether. If you're interested I briefly explained some similarity and differences between Japan and Europe for an earlier periods here and half way down the page here