The complete opposition to divorce is one of the most notable differences between (many sects of) Christianity and other world religions. And in the Gospels, Jesus is pretty clear that he thinks the remarriage of divorced people is a form of adultery. Was this a surprising or radical thing for him to say, in the context of 1st-century Judaism or contemporary Hellenism? Or was he just voicing a slightly more explicit and steadfast version of what most of his listeners probably already agreed with?
Hey OP, this might also be a question to ask in /r/AcademicBiblical and/or /r/AskBibleScholars - the people in those subreddits will definitely have some answers too. All the best!