At the end of a recent Kings and Generals video it was explained that the Huns, who we know about through their encounter with the Romans, may have been the descendants of the Xiongnu the Han had finally thwarted from China with the help of the south Xiongnu empire. Is this a strong standing theory?

by WeAreElectricity

Considering their migratory direction this seems believable, is there also considerable scholarly support of this?

Also, someone who'd just learned this history, or an ignorant person like me could suppose as well that the word 'Hun' is some sort of name transfer that got confused where as maybe the Xiongnu had referred from where they came from, Europeans thought that Xiongnu were referring to themselves and the name stuck as 'Han'.

Seems quite fascinating. Thank you to those who know a lot about this!

Video https://youtu.be/iQ7jDwF2Z2w?t=608

ohea

There are three big challenges in establishing what the relationship was between the Huns and the Xiongnu. The first challenge is the relative lack of information we have on both of them- there is no consensus on what language(s) they spoke, for example. The second challenge is the lack of written Central Asian sources which could tell us what the Northern Xiongnu did after they migrated West or what the Huns did before they arrived on the Pontic Steppe. The third challenge has to do with the nature of steppe powers in general- they are confederations often made up of many different tribal or ethnic groups, and one khanate does not necessarily equate to one language, one culture or one ethnic identity. With such large gaps in the available evidence, we can only make educated guesses about their relationship.

The Huns may have been a new confederation which included descendants of the Northern Xiongnu. They may also have been a continuation of the Northern Xiongnu state (the scholar Hyun Jin Kim argues for this, based on similarities he sees between Hunnic and Xiongnu political structure), but in that case the 'ethnic Xiongnu' could have possibly only made up a small ruling group rather than the whole body of Hunnic people. Or, the similarities between the names used by various peoples to refer to the two could be the result of settled peoples misunderstanding or even stereotyping steppe peoples, and not an indicator of a genuine close connection between the two. There's just not enough evidence to say firmly which of these is true.