Is it true that Portugal regained its independence in 1640 thanks to revolting at the same time as Catalonia, and forcing Spain to choose which one to deal with and which one to let go?

by fan_of_the_pikachu

I've heard this narrative both in Portugal and Catalonia (the point being historical solidarity between the two), and I wonder if there's some truth to it.

Was there coordination or causality between the revolts? And is it really accepted that Spain was overwhelmed by them and didn't have the resources to deal with both, having to make a conscious decision to prioritize the suppression of Catalonia?

How did King Philip IV and III assess the crisis, and what was his real strategy to deal with it?

terminus-trantor

While we wait for other answers, I highly recommend reading an older similar question

Why did the Catalan Revolt during the 1640s and 1650s fail, but the simultaneously occurring Portuguese revolt succeed in reestablishing an independent state? answered by /u/kieslowskifan