Did Jus Prima Noctae, the right of a lord to rape a peasant girl on her wedding night, actually exist in medieval Europe? If so, how did that tradition arise and how was it reconciled with the church? If not, how and why did that rumour arise? | AskHistorians Archive Observer

Did Jus Prima Noctae, the right of a lord to rape a peasant girl on her wedding night, actually exist in medieval Europe? If so, how did that tradition arise and how was it reconciled with the church? If not, how and why did that rumour arise?

by KingAlfredOfEngland

BRIStoneman

In short, no.

Here is /u/sunagainstgold 's excellent and comprehensive answer on the subject.