Why did major powers like the UK, Germany and France allow portugal and spain to divide up the new world in the treaty of tordesillas?

by Gelderland_ball
eugeneofsavoy

These threads have similar questions and answers that you could look over while waiting for a response here.

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2n5vcc/how_was_the_kingdom_of_spain_able_to_colonize/

^ excellent responses by : /u/legendarytubahero /u/guinearider /u/modern_malice

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6ld3l4/why_did_the_british_and_french_not_colonise_south/

^ /u/gugtavas

https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1u0x93/why_didnt_england_and_france_begin_establishing/

^ /u/treeofmadrigal /u/SlyRatchet /u/billsuits1 /u/spoonfeedme