This question has been asked and answered a few times on this subreddit. This is by no means limiting anyone from answering it again!

• /u/TenMinuteHistory: Stalin seems to get lots of blame for the Holodomor (Ukrainian Genocide). But from what I've read, the Ukrainians voluntarily burned their food and killed their live stock which caused a mass starving. What did Stalin actually do during Holodomor?
• /u/facepoundr and /u/rusoved: Why isn't the Ukrainian Famine of 31-33 considered genocide? And do you think it should be, or not?

I also commented on a follow-up thread regarding the last link which I'll quote here:

As for the original thread with /u/Rusoved and myself. I would say that both him and I have some disagreements in regards to the holodomor or the famine of 1932/1933. My views may have changed slightly since that thread as well. To me, after having done so much research on the topic and having debates with regards to the topic, I think it is a very interesting case in the sense that it is very debated because of topical shifts and feelings by people and nation states. Regardless of my viewpoint, the holodomor is recognized by the Ukrainian Government as a genocide and it is unlawful to deny the existence of the holodomor. The Russian Federation denies that the holodomor was a genocide, because of the loss of life in other states of the Soviet Union at the time, including the RSFSR. In a way the Ukrainian government uses the holodomor as legitimacy and it can absolve some sins of Ukrainian separatists during Soviet era.

I find it also kind of striking and interesting that the holodomor does beget these kind of questions. What is the end result of calling the holodomor a genocide versus a crime against humanity? To prove communism was evil? To instead prove the Stalin wasn't that bad? And if you are willing to call the holodomor a genocide, does that also make the Potato Famine by the British Empire against Ireland a genocide as well? A lot of the same evidence or facts are similar in both cases; for example knowing the harvest was less than needed and not providing relief. Both were also periphery states that had a history of separatism. Is it in a way easier to demonize Russians/Soviets than our allies (if we're speaking in an American-centric view).

I think at the end of the day my view may not have changed much, maybe moderated some, however I still find it hard to slap "genocide" on the event. It is so.... administrative bungling and malice that its not genocide, but a huge crime against humanity and a huge loss of life. In some ways the administrative malice is so succinctly Soviet that it may not have a perfect classification.

If you have any follow-up questions or want any clarification regarding the comments mentioned, I'd be happy to help.