How much valid are the conclusions of Thomas Sowell in this article about Spanish and Latin American economic history?

by narseel

https://www.creators.com/read/thomas-sowell/06/16/is-personal-responsibility-obsolete-part-ii

He says - "In 16th and 17th century Spain — its "golden age" — the windfall gain was gold and silver looted by the ton from Spanish colonies in the Western Hemisphere. This enabled Spain to survive without having to develop the skills, the sciences or the work ethic of other countries in Western Europe.

Spain could buy what it wanted from other nations with all the gold and silver taken from its colonies

What this meant in practical terms was that other countries developed the skills, the knowledge, the self-discipline and other forms of human capital that Spain did not have to develop, since it could receive the tangible products of this human capital from other countries.

But once the windfall gains from its colonies were gone, Spain became, and remained, one of the poorest countries in Western Europe. Worse, the disdainful attitudes toward productive work that developed during the centuries of Spain's "golden age" became a negative legacy to future generations, in both Spain itself and in its overseas offshoot societies in Latin America."

commiespaceinvader

Hi there!

Please resubmit with a summary of the specific claims you'd like addressed.

Thank you!